TMeier wrote:I was reading some of the comments on a very interesting link:
http://marginalrevolution.com/marginalr ... rates.html
And one struck me as being particularly gnomic, though not addressing all the complexities of the situation.Veridical Driver June 2, 2011 at 1:17 pm
The real question, is the violent crime rate for non-marginalized U.S. citizens significantly different than other countries?
Sure, the U.K. has a low rate of homicides ? the negative effects of centuries of racism, imperialism, and slavery, have been externalized to Zimbabwe, South Africa, India, etc? In the U.S., because of its historically unique pattern of contiguous expansion (as opposed to acquiring far-flung overseas colonies), and of importing slaves (as opposed to enslaving people in said far-flung overseas colonies), the U.S. internalized the negative effects that Europeans where able to externalize via decolonization.
The murder rate for your average middle class person is extremely low. U.S. crime rates are concentrated in ultra-violent ?Ghettos?, composed of the victims and decedents of victims of slavery, segregation, and racism. What the United States has is essentially small violent third-world pockets that exist in an otherwise low-crime first-world country.
Well he's got his finger on the fucking pulse hasn't he? Has he ever left the US? Has he even wandered around a US 'ghetto'?
Twat